Quick recall · 253 cards
Short MCQ-style retrieval prompts. Tap a card to reveal the answer.
PYQ
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By which among the following Dyarchy was introduced in India?
A. Act of 1892
B. Act of 1909
C. Act of 1919
D. Act of 1935
C · Act of 1919
PYQ
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Which among the following had an objective of introducing the self-governing institutions to India?
A. Indian Council Act 1909
B. Mont-Ford Reforms
C. Cabinet Mission
D. Government of India Act 1935
D · Government of India Act 1935
PYQ
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Which among the following was the first attempt to regulate the affairs of English East India Company in India?
A. Pitts India Act 1784
B. Charter Act 1833
C. The Regulating Act 1773
D. Charter Act of 1813
C · The Regulating Act 1773
PYQ
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Which of the following acts created Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William?
A. The Regulating Act 1773
B. Indian Councils Act 1861
C. Dundas Bill of 1783
D. Charter Act of 1833
A · The Regulating Act 1773
PYQ · 2020
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Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution?
D · Economic liberty
PYQ · 2017
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The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
A · The Preamble
PYQ · 1996
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The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
B · 42nd Amendment
PYQ
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The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
A · a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
PYQ · 2010
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Who among the following had moved the objectives resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946?
D · Jawaharlal Nehru
PYQ · 2013
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Which of the following are the features of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
D · All of the above
Preamble sources authority from people, reflects aspirations via ideals, and embodies philosophy as 'soul' per Thakurdas Bhargava. All features confirmed in judicial interpretations[2].
PYQ · 2021
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Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights shall be:
B · B) Void to the extent of such inconsistency
PYQ · 2020
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Which Article prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in hazardous industries? (2 marks)
C · C) Article 24
PYQ · 2023
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Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution deal with ______.
C · directive principles of state policy
PYQ · 2024
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Articles 36-51 of the Constitution of India pertain to ______.
B · Directive Principles of State Policy
PYQ
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Which Article provides that the provisions contained in Part IV (Directive Principles) shall not be enforceable by any court, but are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country?
B · Article 37
PYQ
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Which of the following Articles was/were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, strengthening DPSPs? (a) Article 39A (b) Article 43A (c) Article 48A (d) All of the above
D · All of the above
PYQ · 2015
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"To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
D · Fundamental Duties
PYQ
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Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are applicable to which group?
A. All persons
B. Citizens only
C. Foreigners only
D. Persons above 18 years only
B · Citizens only
PYQ
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Which articles of the Indian Constitution deal specifically with Legislative Relations between Centre and States?
A. Articles 245 to 255
B. Articles 256 to 263
C. Articles 245 to 263
D. Articles 246 to 255
A · Articles 245 to 255
PYQ
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The emergency provisions of the Indian Constitution were borrowed from:
B · Government of India Act, 1935
PYQ
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The Emergency Provisions of Indian Constitution have been borrowed from:
A · Germany
PYQ · 2011
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How many types of emergencies are envisaged by the Constitution?
C · 3
PYQ
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A National emergency on the grounds of security threat is proclaimed under which among the following articles?
B · Article 352
National Emergency is proclaimed under Article 352 on grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion, corresponding to option B.[3][4]
PYQ
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Under which Article can the President declare a National Emergency?
B · Article 352
The President can declare National Emergency under Article 352, option B.[3][7]
PYQ · 2017
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In India, Judicial Review implies
A · the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders
PYQ
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With reference to the Indian Constitution, in which of the following articles is the power of judicial review with respect to the Supreme Court stated?
B · Articles 32 and 136
PYQ
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Who appoints the CAG?
B · President
PYQ
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Election Commission?
C · Article 324
PYQ
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The Election Commission of India is concerned with the elections to:
C · Parliament, State Legislatures, President, Vice-President
PYQ
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Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
C · President
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners under Article 324(2). This appointment ensures the Commission's independence.
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The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner is
B · 6 years or up to age 65
The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for 6 years or up to 65 years, whichever is earlier, under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners Act, 1991.
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Which of the following was the earliest formal constitution-like document introduced in India before independence?
A · Regulating Act of 1773
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Under the Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms), which of the following was introduced for the first time in Indian legislative councils?
A · Reservation of seats for Muslims
The Indian Councils Act 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims, reserving seats for them in the legislative councils for the first time.
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Which was the main objective behind the introduction of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919?
A · To implement dyarchy in provinces
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms aimed at introducing dyarchy in the provinces, dividing subjects between the elected Indian ministers and British officials.
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Which British Act led to the establishment of the Federal Court of India?
A · Government of India Act 1935
The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the establishment of a Federal Court of India as a step towards federal judiciary.
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The Charter Act of 1853 is significant because it
A · Introduced open competitive exams for civil services in India
The Charter Act of 1853 introduced open competitive examinations for entry into the Indian Civil Services, which was a landmark reform in administration.
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Which of the following statements about the Government of India Act 1935 is INCORRECT?
D · It granted India complete independence
The Government of India Act 1935 did not grant India complete independence; it provided provincial autonomy and introduced dyarchy at the Centre but kept India under British dominion.
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Dyarchy as introduced by the Government of India Act 1919 meant that in the provinces
A · Some subjects were transferred to Indian ministers and others retained by the Governor
Dyarchy divided provincial subjects into 'Transferred' (under Indian ministers) and 'Reserved' (under the Governor), thus sharing control in provinces.
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The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed which of the following for India’s interim government?
A · Groupings of provinces for a loose federal structure
The Cabinet Mission proposed grouping provinces into three sections to preserve a federal structure while maintaining group autonomy.
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Which of the following reforms or commissions recommended increasing Indians' participation in government and proposed the establishment of a constituent assembly?
A · Cripps Mission
The Cripps Mission of 1942 proposed Indian participation in governance and recommended a postwar constituent assembly to frame a constitution.
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The historical background influencing the Indian Constitution included concepts from which of the following sources?
A · British constitutional practices, Government of India Acts, and nationalist movements
The Indian Constitution was influenced by British constitutional experiments in India, Government of India Acts, and Indian nationalist movements demanding self-rule.
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Which feature of the Indian Constitution was influenced by the Government of India Act 1935?
A · Federal structure with division of powers between center and states
The Government of India Act 1935 introduced the federal scheme with a division of powers, which influenced the federal structure in the Indian Constitution.
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Which of the following political developments in pre-constitutional India emphasized the formation of a representative legislature?
A · The establishment of the Indian National Congress in 1885
The Indian National Congress was established in 1885 to provide a platform for political dialogue and to push for greater representation in governance.
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What was the main feature of the system of Dyarchy introduced during pre-constitutional political reforms?
A · Division of subjects between elected Indian ministers and appointed British officials
Dyarchy divided provincial subjects into 'reserved' (controlled by British officials) and 'transferred' (administered by elected Indian ministers), introduced by the Government of India Act 1919.
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The Morley-Minto Reforms introduced in 1909 are significant for which of the following reasons?
A · Introducing separate electorates for Muslims
The Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Council Act 1909) introduced separate electorates for Muslims to ensure minority political representation.
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Which Act is known for introducing the concept of Provincial Autonomy and Dyarchy at the Centre in India?
C · Government of India Act 1919
The Government of India Act 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the provinces and Dyarchy at the central level was proposed but not implemented.
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The Government of India Act 1935 is considered a significant step towards Indian constitutional development because it
B · Introduced provincial autonomy and a federal structure
The 1935 Act introduced provincial autonomy, abolished dyarchy in provinces, and proposed a federal structure, although the federation didn't materialize fully.
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Which provision of the Government of India Act 1935 was never implemented during British rule?
B · Federal structure with princely states
The federal part of the 1935 Act, which was to include princely states as units, was never implemented.
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The Simon Commission of 1927 is remembered for its
C · Lack of Indian representation and popular opposition
The Simon Commission had no Indian members, which led to widespread protests under the slogan ‘Simon, Go Back’.
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The Nehru Report of 1928 proposed which of the following as part of constitutional reforms?
A · Dominion status for India within the British Empire
The Nehru Report sought dominion status and a federal form of government but rejected separate electorates.
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Which among the following commissions was responsible for drafting the proposal of an All India Federation involving both provinces and princely states?
C · Government of India Act 1935
The Government of India Act 1935 proposed an All India Federation including both provinces and princely states.
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How did the Quit India Movement of 1942 influence the drafting of the Indian Constitution?
A · It accelerated the demand for complete independence highlighting the need for a sovereign constitution
The Quit India Movement underscored the demand for complete independence, which shaped the resolve to draft a sovereign constitution.
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Which key historical event led to the acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan and the subsequent formation of the Constituent Assembly?
D · INA trials and post-war unrest
The post-war unrest and INA trials created pressures that led the British government to negotiate via the Cabinet Mission Plan, enabling formation of the Constituent Assembly.
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What is the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A · An introductory statement that sets out the objectives and philosophy of the Constitution
The Preamble serves as an introductory statement outlining the objectives, guiding principles, and philosophy upon which the Constitution is based.
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Which of the following is the correct opening phrase of the Indian Constitution's Preamble?
B · "We, the People of India,"
The Preamble begins with the words "We, the People of India," signifying that the authority of the Constitution comes from the people.
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Which one of these best describes the philosophical significance of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
B · It reflects the socio-political ideals and aspirations of the people
The Preamble captures the core ideals such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity that the Constitution seeks to achieve, reflecting the people's aspirations.
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Which of the following philosophical ideals is NOT mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
D · Communism
The Preamble emphasizes liberty, equality (egalitarianism), and fraternity but does not mention communism as a guiding ideal.
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Why is the Preamble considered a key to understanding the Indian Constitution?
B · Because it is an interpretative tool that reflects the spirit and purpose of the Constitution
The Supreme Court has recognized the Preamble as an interpretative aid that reveals the Constitution’s basic philosophy and objectives.
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Which one of these terms from the Preamble signifies that India is a nation independent of external control?
B · Sovereign
The term 'Sovereign' means that India is fully independent and free from external control or interference.
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In the context of the Preamble, what does the term 'Secular' imply about India?
B · Equal respect for all religions without favoring any
‘Secular’ in the Preamble means the state treats all religions equally and does not favor or discriminate against any religion.
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Which of the following best defines 'Democratic' as used in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
B · Rule by elected representatives of the people
'Democratic' means the government is elected by the people and is responsible to them.
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The term 'Republic' in the Preamble signifies which of the following?
B · Sovereignty rests with the people and the Head of State is elected
'Republic' means that the country is governed by representatives elected by the people and the Head of State is not a hereditary monarch.
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Which landmark judgment declared the Preamble as a part of the Constitution and not merely a decorative introduction?
A · Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
The Kesavananda Bharati judgment held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution, thus having constitutional status.
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Which amendment to the Indian Constitution inserted the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' into the Preamble?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
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Which of the following phrases is NOT part of the text of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
D · Justice, Freedom and Equality
The Preamble includes 'Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' but not the phrase 'Justice, Freedom and Equality'. 'Freedom' is not used; the correct term is 'Liberty'.
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What is the primary purpose of the Preamble in the Indian Constitution?
B · To declare the objectives and philosophy of the Constitution
The Preamble sets out the objectives, guiding principles and philosophy behind the Indian Constitution; it does not list rights or powers or procedures.
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Which philosophical foundation is reflected by the term 'Sovereign' as used in the Indian Constitution’s Preamble?
A · The state's absolute independence from external control
'Sovereign' signifies that India is independent and free from external control or interference in its internal or external affairs.
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The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is considered a 'key to its spirit' but does NOT confer any substantive rights because:
B · It is only a statement of objectives without enforceability
Though the Preamble declares the underlying ideals and objectives, it is not enforceable as a law and does not confer rights by itself.
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Identify the core value mentioned in the Preamble that emphasizes equality before the law and social fairness:
C · Justice
Justice in the Preamble covers social, economic, and political equality, emphasizing fairness and equity.
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Which of the following ideals in the Preamble best promotes the concept of treating all religions equally without state bias?
C · Secular
'Secular' signifies that the state treats all religions equally and there is no official state religion.
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In what way did the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) impact the judicial interpretation of the Preamble?
B · It established that the Preamble forms part of the Constitution and limits Parliament’s power
The Supreme Court held that the Preamble is integral to the Constitution and forms a key part of the 'basic structure' that Parliament cannot alter.
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Which landmark judgement recognized the Preamble as a guiding light in interpreting Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
A · Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
The Minerva Mills case reinforced that the Preamble guides constitutional interpretation and balances Fundamental Rights with Directive Principles.
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How does the Preamble relate to the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution?
B · It acts as an interpretative tool to harmonize both sets of provisions
The Preamble embodies the ideals behind both Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles and serves as a guide to interpret and balance them.
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Which statement best describes the legal status of the Preamble after the Supreme Court ruling in Berubari Union case (1960)?
B · Preamble is part of the Constitution but cannot limit or expand constitutional powers
The Berubari case held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution but it cannot be used to restrict or extend the powers granted under the Constitution.
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Which of the following best defines Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution?
B · Rights inherent to all citizens, meant to protect individual freedoms
Fundamental Rights are basic human rights guaranteed by the Constitution to all individuals, primarily aimed at protecting individual freedoms from infringement by the State.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution primarily guarantees the Fundamental Rights?
A · Articles 12 to 35
Fundamental Rights are enshrined between Articles 12 and 35 of the Indian Constitution, covering various rights including equality, freedom, and constitutional remedies.
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Which of the following best describes the scope of 'Fundamental Rights' in India?
C · They generally protect individuals from State actions but not private acts
Fundamental Rights primarily restrict State actions and authorities, protecting individuals from State interference; generally, they do not apply to private individuals or entities.
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According to Article 12, which of the following is NOT included in the definition of 'State'?
D · Private educational institution
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Which statement correctly explains the judicial interpretation of the term 'State' under Article 12?
B · Both central and state governments, plus local authorities and instrumentalities, constitute the State
The Supreme Court has interpreted 'State' under Article 12 to include the central and state governments, local authorities, and instrumentalities or agencies of the government.
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In the case of Private Company performing government functions, can it be considered a 'State' under Article 12?
A · Yes, if it performs public functions and is under government control
Judicially, private companies performing public functions under government control can be treated as State under Article 12 for Fundamental Rights applicability.
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Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees which of the following rights?
B · Right to equality before the law
Article 14 guarantees that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
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Which of the following practices was abolished under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution?
A · Untouchability
Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and forbids its practice in any form.
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Which article guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression subject to reasonable restrictions?
A · Article 19(1)(a)
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression, which is subject to reasonable restrictions in the interest of sovereignty, security, decency, etc.
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Which of the following is NOT considered a reasonable restriction on the freedom of speech under Article 19(2)?
D · General dislike or disagreement
General dislike or disagreement is not a valid reason for imposing restrictions on freedom of speech; restrictions must be based on grounds listed in Article 19(2).
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The protection against arrest and detention in certain cases is provided under which Article?
B · Article 22
Article 22 provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention and lays down procedural safeguards.
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Which of the following practices is prohibited by Article 23 of the Indian Constitution?
B · Forced labor and traffic in human beings
Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings, begar (forced labor), and other forms of forced labor.
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Under Article 24, children below a certain age are prohibited from working in which type of establishments?
A · Factories, mines, and hazardous employment
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years age in factories, mines, or any hazardous employment.
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Article 25 guarantees which of the following fundamental rights?
B · Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion
Article 25 provides freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion subject to public order, health, and morality.
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Which article restricts the right to propagate religion only to peaceful means?
A · Article 25
Article 25 permits freedom of religion but restricts propagation only through peaceful means, subject to public order, health, and morality.
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Which of the following is correct about Article 28 of the Indian Constitution?
B · It prohibits religious instruction in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds
Article 28 prohibits religious instruction in government-funded educational institutions wholly maintained by the State, except in those administered by religious organizations.
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Article 29 of the Indian Constitution safeguards which type of rights?
B · Cultural and educational rights of minorities to protect their language, script, and culture
Article 29 protects the interests of minorities by securing their rights to conserve their language, script, or culture.
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Which of the following rights is guaranteed under Article 30 of the Indian Constitution?
A · Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
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Which Article allows individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
A · Article 32
Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies, enabling individuals to directly move the Supreme Court for protection of Fundamental Rights.
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Which of the following writs is NOT issued under Article 32 for enforcing Fundamental Rights?
D · Injunction
The writ of Injunction is not included under Article 32; Article 32 provides writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, and quo warranto.
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In the famous Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is limited by which of the following?
A · Basic Structure Doctrine, including Fundamental Rights
The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot amend the 'basic structure' of the Constitution, which includes Fundamental Rights.
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Which constitutional amendment primarily affected the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by adding the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review?
A · First Amendment
The First Amendment (1951) added the Ninth Schedule to protect certain laws, especially land reforms, from being challenged as violating Fundamental Rights.
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Which of the following is a valid restriction on Fundamental Rights that the State can impose?
B · Restriction in the interest of public order, morality, and sovereignty
The State may impose reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights in the interests of public order, morality, security of the State, etc., but cannot impose arbitrary restrictions.
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Which of the following is an example of a Constitutional Amendment that restricted Fundamental Rights but was upheld by the judiciary either fully or partially?
C · Both A and B
Both the First and Twenty-fourth Amendments introduced restrictions on Fundamental Rights and were upheld to an extent by the judiciary with certain limitations.
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Which of the following best defines the scope of Fundamental Rights as per Articles 12-35 of the Indian Constitution?
B · Rights applicable to all persons, including non-citizens, against state actions
Fundamental Rights under Articles 12-35 protect all persons (not just citizens) from actions by the State, ensuring basic freedoms and equality.
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Which Article in the Indian Constitution defines the term 'State' for the purpose of Fundamental Rights?
B · Article 12
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Which Article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth in India?
A · Article 15
Article 15 prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
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Which of the following is NOT abolished by Article 17 of the Indian Constitution?
C · Forced labor
Article 17 abolishes 'Untouchability' but forced labor is prohibited under Article 23, not Article 17.
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The test to determine the constitutionality of a 'reasonable classification' under Article 14 was established in which case?
B · State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
The Supreme Court in State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar propounded the principle of reasonable classification under Article 14.
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Which of the following rights is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution?
B · Freedom of speech and expression
Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the Right to Freedom of speech and expression to all citizens.
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Article 21 guarantees which fundamental right to every person?
B · Right to life and personal liberty
Article 21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
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Under which Article is the protection against arbitrary detention provided?
B · Article 22
Article 22 provides rights related to protection against arrest and detention in certain cases, including right to be informed, right to consult a lawyer, and to be produced before a magistrate.
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Which freedom is NOT included in the list under Article 19(1)?
B · Right to property
Right to property was originally a fundamental right under Article 19 but was removed and is now governed by a separate legal framework.
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Under which Article is the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor guaranteed?
A · Article 23
Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings, begar (forced labor), and other similar forms of forced labor.
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Child labor in factories and hazardous conditions is prohibited by which Article of the Constitution?
B · Article 24
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or hazardous employment.
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Which Article in the Constitution guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion?
A · Article 25
Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise, and propagate religion subject to public order, morality, and health.
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Which Article prohibits the taxation of religious instructions?
C · Article 28
Article 28 prohibits the state from requiring any person to attend religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions and forbids taxation for religious purposes.
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The Supreme Court decision that clarified the 'essential practices doctrine' under freedom of religion is associated with which case?
B · Shirur Mutt case
In the Shirur Mutt case, the Supreme Court held that practices regarded as 'essential' to a religion are protected under Article 25.
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Which Article protects the interests of minorities by guaranteeing them the right to conserve their distinct language, script, and culture?
A · Article 29
Article 29 protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities to conserve their culture, language, and script.
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Under which Article do minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?
B · Article 30
Article 30 grants minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions to preserve and impart their culture.
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Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides which of the following rights?
A · Right to constitutional remedies including writs like habeas corpus and mandamus
Article 32 gives every citizen the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights through writ petitions.
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Which of the following writs is NOT included under Article 32 for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
D · Prohibition of Preventive Detention
Article 32 provides writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari; 'preventive detention' is covered under other laws, not a writ.
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Which amendment curtailed the right to property by removing it from the list of fundamental rights?
A · 44th Amendment
The 44th Amendment of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of fundamental rights (Article 31) and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
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The 'Doctrine of Basic Structure' which protects Fundamental Rights from amendments was established in which case?
A · Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the 'Basic Structure Doctrine' limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, especially Fundamental Rights.
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Which among the following is a valid restriction on Fundamental Rights under the Constitution?
B · Restrictions can be imposed for reasons of public order, morality, and security
Restrictions on Fundamental Rights can be imposed for genuine reasons like public order, morality, security, among others, as provided within specific provisions.
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The Supreme Court’s power to strike down legislative acts violating Fundamental Rights is an example of which judicial function?
B · Judicial Review
Judicial Review is the power of the courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts and strike down those contravening Fundamental Rights.
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Which landmark judgment expanded the interpretation of Article 21 to include the 'right to privacy' as a fundamental right?
B · Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India
In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21.
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Which of the following best defines the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution?
B · Guidelines for the government to establish a just society
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the term 'State' for the purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy?
A · Article 36
Article 36 provides the definition of the term ‘State’ under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Indian Constitution.
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Under which classification of Directive Principles does the promotion of village panchayats fall?
B · Gandhian Principles
Promotion of village panchayats and local self-government is a Gandhian Directive Principle reflecting decentralization and rural development.
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Which of the following Directive Principles is categorised as a Liberal-Intellectual principle?
A · Promoting international peace and security
Directive Principles aimed at promoting international peace and security fall under Liberal-Intellectual principles which focus on broad moral and international values.
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Which Article among 36-51 mandates that the state shall strive to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and improve public health?
D · Article 47
Article 47 directs the State to improve public health and nutrition levels as part of social welfare measures.
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Which Directive Principle under Articles 36-51 aims at securing the right to work, education, and public assistance in certain cases?
C · Article 41
Article 41 directs the State to provide public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, securing the right to work and education.
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Which Article, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to strive for equal pay for equal work for both men and women?
B · Article 43A
Article 43A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment to promote equal pay for equal work among men and women.
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Which of these statements best describes the judiciary’s role with respect to Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights?
B · Fundamental Rights are enforceable by courts, while Directive Principles are not
Fundamental Rights are justiciable and enforceable in courts, whereas Directive Principles guide policy and are non-justiciable in nature, though they influence constitutional interpretation.
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Which landmark amendment explicitly added 'Directive Principles' regarding equal pay and workers' welfare to the Indian Constitution?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added several Directive Principles including Article 43A (equal pay) and expanded the scope of workers' welfare.
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Which of the following best explains the reason for Directive Principles being non-enforceable by the courts?
B · They require financial resources and policy discretion that courts cannot supervise
Directive Principles are non-justiciable because their implementation depends on the government’s financial resources and policy decisions, which courts are not equipped to enforce or monitor.
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In terms of governance and policy making, what is the main significance of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
B · They act as a guideline for the government to promote social and economic welfare
Directive Principles serve as guidelines directing the government in making policies geared toward social justice, welfare, economic development, and good governance.
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Which of the following best describes the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
B · Non-justiciable guidelines for the state to establish a welfare state
Directive Principles are guidelines set out in Part IV of the Constitution aiming to establish social and economic democracy but are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts.
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Which feature distinguishes Directive Principles of State Policy from Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
B · Directive Principles are non-justiciable, Fundamental Rights are justiciable
Directive Principles are guidelines meant to be implemented by the State and are non-justiciable, whereas Fundamental Rights are legal entitlements that citizens can enforce through courts.
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Which of the following is NOT a category of Directive Principles?
D · Religious
Directive Principles are broadly classified into Economic, Social, and Political categories. There is no separate category called Religious Directive Principles.
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Which Directive Principle mandates the State to provide equal pay for equal work for both men and women?
B · Article 39(d)
Article 39(d) directs the State to ensure that men and women have equal pay for equal work to promote gender equality in employment.
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Which of the following Directive Principles is an example of a political directive?
A · Promotion of village panchayats (Article 40)
Article 40 directs the State to organize village panchayats, which is a political directive aimed at decentralizing political power.
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Which article in the Indian Constitution instructs the State to distribute ownership and control of material resources to serve the common good?
C · Article 39(c)
Article 39(c) directs the State to ensure that ownership and control of material resources are distributed in a way that serves the common good.
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Which amendment explicitly included the Directive Principle of promoting international peace and security within the Indian Constitution?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment added Article 51A which includes the promotion of international peace and security as a fundamental duty, reinforcing the Directive Principles' objectives.
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In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case, how did the Supreme Court interpret the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
C · Both are complementary and the Constitution must balance them
The Court held that Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary and must be balanced in governance to harmonize social justice with individual liberty.
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Which Directive Principle explicitly directs the State to strive to minimize inequalities in income and status among individuals?
B · Article 39(a)
Article 39(a) directs the State to ensure an adequate means of livelihood for all citizens and aims to reduce income inequalities.
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Regarding the enforcement of Directive Principles, which statement is correct?
C · They are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by any court
Directive Principles are non-justiciable guidelines for the State and cannot be enforced through courts, unlike Fundamental Rights.
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What are Fundamental Duties as per the Indian Constitution?
B · Responsibilities expected from all citizens
Fundamental Duties are moral obligations of all citizens to help promote patriotism and uphold the unity of India, as introduced under the Constitution.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution introduces Fundamental Duties?
B · Article 51A
Fundamental Duties are listed under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.
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Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by which constitutional amendment?
B · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.
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Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?
C · To pay taxes promptly
Paying taxes promptly is a legal obligation but not included in the Fundamental Duties as per Article 51A.
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Which Fundamental Duty requires citizens to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women?
B · To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
One of the Fundamental Duties clearly mandates citizens to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
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Which of the following correctly lists the number of Fundamental Duties originally introduced by the 42nd Amendment in 1976?
B · 10
The 42nd Amendment introduced 10 Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
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Which Supreme Court case emphasized the importance of Fundamental Duties while interpreting Directive Principles of State Policy?
B · Minerva Mills Case
The Minerva Mills case recognized the importance of Fundamental Duties and reinforced their role in interpreting Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights.
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What is the legal status of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
B · Non-justiciable moral obligations
Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable moral obligations and not enforceable by law in courts.
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Which Constitutional amendment made the 11th Fundamental Duty about the development of scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform?
C · 86th Amendment
The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 added the 11th Fundamental Duty concerning the development of scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry.
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What is the primary significance of Fundamental Duties in Indian society?
B · To promote a sense of responsibility and national unity
Fundamental Duties aim to instill a sense of responsibility among citizens and promote national unity and patriotism.
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Which of the following statements about enforcement of Fundamental Duties is correct?
C · Fundamental Duties serve primarily as moral guidelines without legal sanction
Fundamental Duties are moral obligations and not legally enforceable; they serve as guiding principles for citizens.
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Which of the following best defines Fundamental Duties as per the Indian Constitution?
B · Moral obligations expected from citizens
Fundamental Duties are moral obligations prescribed for citizens to promote a sense of discipline and commitment towards the nation.
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Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution primarily aim to
B · Encourage citizens to uphold the Constitution
Fundamental Duties encourage citizens to respect and uphold constitutional values and contribute positively to the nation.
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Which aspect distinguishes Fundamental Duties from Fundamental Rights?
B · Fundamental Duties impose moral obligations, while Fundamental Rights provide legal entitlements
Fundamental Duties are primarily moral obligations whereas Fundamental Rights are legal rights enforceable by courts.
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Which of the following is NOT listed among the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens?
C · To vote in elections
Voting is a citizen’s right but not enumerated as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution.
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Which Fundamental Duty emphasizes respect towards the diversity of the nation’s culture?
B · To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
Promoting harmony and the spirit of brotherhood relates to respecting the nation’s cultural diversity, as per Fundamental Duties.
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Which Fundamental Duty involves "to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India"?
D · Duty to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
This exact phrase appears as one of the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
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The Indian Constitution originally did not include Fundamental Duties. They were introduced by which amendment?
A · 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added Fundamental Duties under Article 51A to the Constitution.
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Which amendment added the duty "to protect and improve the natural environment" to the list of Fundamental Duties?
B · 86th Amendment Act, 2002
The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 added the environmental protection duty to Article 51A.
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Article 51A of the Indian Constitution deals mainly with which topic?
C · Fundamental Duties
Article 51A specifically enumerates the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens.
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The flexibility of Fundamental Duties lies in the fact that
C · The government can enforce them through legislation but they are primarily moral obligations
Fundamental Duties are mainly moral obligations; however, some can be enforced by law, but they don't have the same enforceability as Fundamental Rights.
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Which of the following statements best explains the significance of Fundamental Duties?
B · They serve as a constant reminder to citizens about their responsibilities towards the nation
Fundamental Duties encourage citizens to act responsibly and patriotically, fostering national unity and integrity.
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Which of the following best describes the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States in India?
C · Power is divided into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List
The Indian Constitution divides legislative powers between the Union and States through three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
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Under the Indian Constitution, which body primarily legislates on subjects mentioned in the State List?
B · State Legislatures
Subjects in the State List are legislated primarily by the State Legislatures.
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Which of the following statements about the legislative powers between Union and States is correct?
B · Parliament can override State laws on Concurrent List subjects
Parliament can legislate on the Concurrent List subjects and can override State laws on these subjects except in certain conditions.
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Which of the following lists contains subjects like defence, atomic energy, and foreign affairs as per the Indian Constitution?
B · Union List
The Union List contains subjects such as defence, atomic energy and foreign affairs, which are under the exclusive legislative domain of the Parliament.
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Which list contains entries on public health and agriculture, where both Union and States can legislate?
C · Concurrent List
Both the Union and State legislatures can legislate on subjects like public health and agriculture found in the Concurrent List.
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Which List under the Indian Constitution includes subjects like public order and police, which are primarily the responsibility of States?
B · State List
The State List includes subjects like public order and police, which are primarily under the State Legislature’s domain.
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Which of these statements about the Residuary Powers under the Indian Constitution is correct?
B · Residuary powers belong exclusively to the Parliament
Residuary powers, i.e., subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists, vest exclusively with the Parliament of India.
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Why are residuary powers significant in the context of Indian legislative relations?
B · They enable Union Parliament to legislate on unforeseen or emerging subjects
Residuary powers give the Union Parliament the flexibility to legislate on new or emerging subjects not envisaged at the time of framing the Constitution.
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Consider the following scenario: A new technology related subject emerges not listed in any schedule. Who has the power to legislate on it initially as per the Indian Constitution?
B · Union Parliament
The Union Parliament possesses residuary powers to legislate on subjects not enumerated in the three lists, so it can legislate on new/unlisted technologies.
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Under which constitutional provision can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List during a national emergency?
C · Article 250
Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during a declared national emergency.
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Which article allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects with the consent of two or more States during certain circumstances?
C · Article 252
Article 252 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if two or more States consent to it.
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Under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by at least what fraction of its members present and voting?
D · Two-thirds
Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.
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The Inter-state Council, established under Article 263, primarily functions to:
B · Resolve disputes between states and the Union
The Inter-state Council is a constitutional body aimed at resolving disputes and fostering cooperation between the Union and States.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of the Inter-state Council in India?
C · Legislating laws on State List subjects
The Inter-state Council acts as an advisory and consultative body; it does not have legislative powers.
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Which of the following mechanisms is considered most effective in resolving legislative conflicts between Union and States in India?
A · Supreme Court adjudication
The Supreme Court of India has the ultimate authority to resolve constitutional conflicts between Union and State legislations.
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The procedure for a bill to become a law affecting states is different from an ordinary bill when it is a _____ bill.
B · Money and Financial Bill
Money and Financial Bills have special procedures laid down by the Constitution, particularly in relation to states.
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Which legislative procedure requires the President’s recommendation before the Union Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State List for a particular State under Article 249?
A · Rajya Sabha resolution passed by two-thirds majority
Article 249 allows Parliament to legislate on State List matters only if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority, often followed by the President’s recommendation.
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Which Constitutional Amendment gave Parliament the power to legislate on State List subjects to implement international treaties and agreements?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment empowered Parliament to legislate on State List subjects if required to implement international treaties or agreements.
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The 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution is important in Union-State legislative relations because it:
B · Included international treaties as a Union subject
The 42nd Amendment included international treaties and agreements in the Union List empowering Parliament to legislate on related subjects.
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Which amendment specifically altered the balance of legislative powers between Union and States by modifying entries in the lists, especially related to trade and commerce?
B · 101st Amendment
The 101st Amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and redefined trade and commerce entries affecting both Union and States.
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When there is a conflict between a Union law and a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List, which one prevails generally?
C · Union Law prevails unless State law is reserved for President’s assent and approved
Union law prevails on Concurrent List conflicts unless the State law has been reserved for President’s assent and receives approval, in which case the State law prevails in that State.
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Which article provides that if any provision of a law made by the State Legislature is repugnant to a law made by Parliament on a matter in the Concurrent List, then the Parliamentary law shall prevail?
A · Article 254
Article 254 specifies that in case of conflict between Union and State laws on the Concurrent List, the Union law prevails unless certain exceptions apply.
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In case of irreconcilable conflict between Union and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, which institution is the ultimate arbiter?
C · Supreme Court of India
The Supreme Court settles disputes regarding constitutional conflicts between Union and States including conflicts on the Concurrent List.
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Which of the following most accurately defines the types of Emergency under the Indian Constitution?
A · National Emergency, State Emergency, Financial Emergency
The Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies: National Emergency under Article 352, State Emergency or President's Rule under Article 356, and Financial Emergency under Article 360.
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According to the Indian Constitution, which authority is responsible for proclaiming a National Emergency under Article 352?
C · The President of India
Article 352 empowers the President of India to proclaim a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
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Under Article 352, a National Emergency can be declared on the ground of "armed rebellion." This term replaced which earlier ground following the 44th Amendment?
A · "Internal disturbance"
The 44th Amendment of 1978 replaced the term "internal disturbance" with "armed rebellion" to prevent misuse of Emergency powers.
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Which of the following is a requirement for the imposition of President's Rule under Article 356 in a state?
B · Failure of constitutional machinery in the state
President's Rule under Article 356 is imposed when the Governor reports failure of constitutional machinery in a state or the President otherwise believes it.
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Which of the following is true about the duration of President’s Rule under Article 356 before requiring parliamentary approval?
D · It must be approved within 2 months
President’s Rule can be imposed for a maximum of six months initially, but it requires parliamentary approval within 2 months of proclamation.
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Which of the following judicial pronouncements is associated with the misuse and judicial review of the President’s Rule under Article 356?
A · S. R. Bommai Case
The S.R. Bommai vs Union of India (1994) case laid down strict guidelines to prevent misuse of Article 356 and allowed judicial review of proclamations.
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Under Article 360, a Financial Emergency can be declared by the President if:
B · Financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened
Article 360 allows the President to declare Financial Emergency if the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened.
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What is one constitutional consequence during the Financial Emergency under Article 360?
B · The Union government can reduce salaries of all government employees including the judges
During Financial Emergency, the President can direct reduction of salaries of government employees including judges across states.
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Which amendment introduced the substantial changes to Emergency provisions, notably replacing 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for National Emergency grounds?
B · 44th Amendment
The 44th Amendment (1978) replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' in Article 352 to limit misuse of National Emergency.
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The 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution made which of the following significant changes to the Emergency provisions?
C · It made Fundamental Rights suspended during National Emergency except Article 20 and 21
The 42nd Amendment allowed for suspension of Fundamental Rights (other than Articles 20 and 21) during National Emergency, increasing central power significantly.
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Which of the following best describes the impact of National Emergency on the federal structure of India?
B · It temporarily suspends the federal nature, making India more unitary
During National Emergency, the Constitution allows the Union government to override the state governments, making India temporarily more unitary and centralizing power.
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During a National Emergency, which of the following fundamental rights is automatically suspended according to constitutional provisions before amendments like 44th Amendment?
D · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
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What is the primary purpose of a constitutional amendment in India?
B · To alter or add provisions to the Constitution
Constitutional amendments are used to alter, modify, or add provisions to the Constitution to meet changing needs while retaining its framework.
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Which of the following statements correctly defines a constitutional amendment under Indian law?
C · A formal change or addition to the Constitution through a special process
A constitutional amendment is a formal change or addition made through a special procedure defined in Article 368 of the Indian Constitution.
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Which article of the Indian Constitution primarily deals with the process of constitutional amendments?
B · Article 368
Article 368 lays down the procedure for the amendment of the Constitution of India.
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Which constitutional amendment abolished the practice of 'Privy Purses' paid to the erstwhile princely states?
B · 26th Amendment
The 26th Amendment (1971) abolished privy purses and official recognition to princely states.
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The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India is often called the 'Mini Constitution' because:
B · It amended almost one-fourth of the Constitution
The 42nd Amendment (1976) brought extensive changes, amending around 100 provisions, thus earning the name 'Mini Constitution'.
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Which amendment incorporated the Fundamental Duties into the Constitution?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
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Which amendment introduced the Economic Liberalisation reforms and dismantled the 'License Raj'?
D · No specific amendment; it was executive policy
Economic reforms started in 1991 were policy-driven and not through a single amendment; however, 74th and 73rd amendments related to local governance.
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Which of the following is NOT a correct step in the constitutional amendment process of India as per Article 368?
D · Presidential assent without any parliamentary approval
Presidential assent is required after parliamentary approval; however, the President cannot give assent without the bill passing the Parliament.
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An amendment requiring ratification by the states is one that:
B · Affects the federal structure or state powers
Amendments impacting states’ powers or the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the states as per Article 368(2).
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Which constitutional amendment procedure requires approval by a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament?
D · No such procedure exists for constitutional amendments
Constitutional amendments always require special majority; simple majority is for ordinary laws and not for amendments.
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Which of the following is a correct classification of constitutional amendments in India based on procedure?
C · Simple majority, special majority, and special majority plus state ratification
Amendments are classified as needing simple majority (ordinary laws), special majority, or special majority with state ratification.
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Which amendment type requires only a special majority in Parliament but no ratification by states?
C · Amendments concerning the Preamble
Amendments altering the Preamble or parts of the Constitution that do not affect states require only special majority in Parliament, without ratification by states.
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The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution primarily aimed at:
B · Rolling back some provisions of the 42nd Amendment
The 44th Amendment (1978) repealed many provisions of the 42nd Amendment, restoring the balance of power.
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The 61st Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to:
A · 18 years
The 61st Amendment (1988) lowered the voting age to 18 years for elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
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Which amendment is known for introducing the concept of 'Anti-Defection Law' to curb political defections?
A · 52nd Amendment
The 52nd Amendment (1985) inserted the Tenth Schedule, popularly called the Anti-Defection Law.
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The 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Constitution deal with:
B · Local self-government in rural and urban areas respectively
These amendments (1992) provide constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions and Municipalities.
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The 44th Amendment had a significant impact on which of the following fundamental rights?
B · Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights
The 44th Amendment removed the Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
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Which amendment curtailed the scope of Fundamental Rights to protect Directive Principles and public interest?
B · 25th Amendment
The 25th Amendment (1971) imposed restrictions on the Right to Property, strengthening Directive Principles of State Policy.
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The 24th Amendment was passed to overturn which Supreme Court judgment that limited Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights?
B · Golaknath Case
The Golaknath Case (1967) held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights; the 24th Amendment reversed this holding.
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Which amendment explicitly upheld Parliament's power to amend any part of the Constitution including Fundamental Rights?
C · 24th Amendment
The 24th Amendment declared that Parliament’s power of amendment includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
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The 44th Amendment restored which important safeguard against misuse of emergency powers?
A · Requirement of approval of emergency proclamation by both Houses of Parliament within one month
The 44th Amendment (1978) restored parliamentary approval safeguards needed for emergencies, which had been diluted by the 42nd Amendment.
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Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which amendment?
A · 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.
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Which amendment made the Directive Principles non-justiciable but emphasized their importance in governance?
B · 44th Amendment
The 44th Amendment reaffirmed the non-justiciable nature of Directive Principles while emphasizing their role in governance.
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Which article was inserted by the 42nd Amendment to include Fundamental Duties?
A · Article 51A
The 42nd Amendment introduced Article 51A enumerating Fundamental Duties for citizens.
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Which recent constitutional amendment introduced the concept of 'National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET)' for medical admissions?
D · 102nd Amendment
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The 104th Constitutional Amendment primarily dealt with:
D · Abolishing the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in Parliament
The 104th Amendment (2020) abolished the reserved seats for Anglo-Indian nominees in Parliament and state legislatures.
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Which amendment reorganized Jammu & Kashmir and abrogated Article 370 providing special status to the state?
D · No amendment; it was a presidential order and parliamentary resolution
The abrogation of Article 370 was done through a Presidential Order and parliamentary resolutions, not through a formal constitutional amendment.
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The 103rd Amendment expanded reservation policy to include which groups?
A · Economically weaker sections (EWS) from the general category
The 103rd Amendment (2019) introduced a 10% reservation for EWS individuals in education and employment.
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The 97th Amendment gave constitutional recognition to which institution?
A · Cooperative Societies
The 97th Amendment (2017) provided constitutional status to cooperative societies for democratic functioning and autonomy.
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Which statement about constitutional amendments is correct?
C · Some amendments require only special majority in Parliament, others also require ratification by state legislatures
Depending on the subject matter, some amendments require only special majority in Parliament, while others also need ratification by state legislatures (Article 368).
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Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a constitutional amendment under Article 368?
D · Approval by the Supreme Court
The Supreme Court’s role is to interpret the Constitution but not to approve amendment bills.
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Which amendment introduced the provision for 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in education and public employment?
B · 103rd Amendment
The 103rd Amendment (2019) provided 10% reservation for EWS in central government jobs and educational institutions.
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Which constitutional amendment is known for the introduction of consumer protection laws and specialised forums?
D · 68th Amendment
The 68th Amendment (1991) inserted Article 39A to promote equal justice and provided for consumer protection laws.
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Which of the following is TRUE about constitutional amendments related to Fundamental Rights?
C · They can be amended by a special majority and require ratification by state legislatures if affecting state powers
Fundamental Rights can be amended by Parliament with special majorities, and if the amendments affect states, ratification by states is also needed.
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What is the primary objective of judicial review under the Indian Constitution?
A · To review legislative and executive actions for constitutionality
Judicial review allows courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they adhere to the Constitution.
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Which of the following best defines the scope of judicial review in India?
B · It covers review of laws, executive orders, and constitutional amendments
In India, judicial review extends to laws passed by legislature, executive orders, and constitutional amendments to ensure compliance with the Constitution.
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Which of the following is NOT a function of judicial review in the Indian context?
C · Making policy decisions for the government
Judicial review does not involve making policy decisions; it is limited to reviewing the constitutionality of laws and actions.
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The concept of judicial review in India was inherited from which legal system?
C · American Legal System
Judicial review in India was influenced primarily by the American system, which provided the framework for courts to review laws for constitutionality.
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Which judicial decision first established the power of judicial review in India?
B · M. C. Chockalingam v. Union of India
In M. C. Chockalingam v. Union of India (1951), the Supreme Court recognized judicial review as an inherent power under the Constitution.
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During which period did the Supreme Court of India significantly expand the scope of judicial review through various judgments?
C · 1970-1980
Between 1970 and 1980, the Supreme Court expanded judicial review notably through landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution explicitly empowers courts to declare laws unconstitutional?
A · Article 13
Article 13 states that any law inconsistent with or in derogation of fundamental rights is void, empowering the courts to declare such laws unconstitutional.
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Which of the following constitutional provisions limits the judicial review of certain constitutional amendments in India?
A · Article 368(4)
Article 368(4) restricts judicial review of constitutional amendments under certain conditions, although this has been subject to Supreme Court interpretation.
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Which Article provides the Supreme Court with powers of judicial review over laws infringing upon fundamental rights?
A · Article 32
Article 32 allows individuals to move the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights and empowers judicial review against violations.
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In the case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, what principle did the Supreme Court establish regarding judicial review of constitutional amendments?
C · The Basic Structure of the Constitution cannot be altered
The Kesavananda Bharati case established the Basic Structure doctrine, limiting Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution if it affects its core features.
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Which landmark Supreme Court case ruled that the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976 was partly unconstitutional, thereby affirming judicial review over constitutional amendments?
B · Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India
Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India struck down parts of the 42nd Amendment, reaffirming the Supreme Court’s power of judicial review over constitutional amendments.
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In the doctrine of judicial review, which of the following cases upheld the power of judicial review for protecting fundamental rights during emergency periods?
C · S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
In S.R. Bommai case, the Supreme Court upheld the role of judicial review in checking misuse of constitutional powers during emergency and protecting federal structure and fundamental rights.
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Which of the following is a recognized limitation on judicial review under the Indian Constitution?
C · Political questions and internal legislature proceedings are non-justiciable
Political questions and legislative internal proceedings are generally non-justiciable, acting as a limitation on judicial review.
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In which case did the Supreme Court hold that judicial review cannot be ousted except by clear and express language in the statute?
A · L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
In L. Chandra Kumar case, the Court held that judicial review is a basic feature of the Constitution and cannot be excluded unless explicit language excludes it.
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Which constitutional amendment is associated with attempts to curtail the power of judicial review in India?
A · The 24th Amendment
The 24th Amendment sought to limit judicial review by declaring certain constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny, challenged later in Kesavananda Bharati case.
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How did the 42nd Amendment impact judicial review in India before it was partly struck down?
B · It attempted to restrict judicial review over constitutional amendments
The 42nd Amendment attempted to curtail judicial review, especially on constitutional amendments and fundamental rights, which was later negated by the Supreme Court.
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Which of the following statements is true regarding judicial review and constitutional amendments in India?
B · Judicial review can invalidate constitutional amendments violative of the Basic Structure
The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati and subsequent cases declared that judicial review can invalidate amendments violating the Basic Structure.
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How does judicial review protect fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution?
B · By empowering the judiciary to declare conflicting laws void
Judicial review empowers courts to strike down laws and executive actions that violate fundamental rights, thus protecting citizens.
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights?
B · Article 32
Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, etc., for enforcing fundamental rights.
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In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, how did judicial review expand the protection of fundamental rights?
B · By introducing the principle of due process and widening Article 21 scope
The Court widened the ambit of Article 21 by including principles of fairness, justice, and due process, enhancing judicial review for fundamental rights protection.
